Question
A 28-year-old man develops the “worst headache of his life” and then becomes comatose. A CT scan of the head reveals subarachnoid hemorrhage. The patient eventually dies, and an autopsy reveals an aneurysm at the base of the brain as shown in the image. The pathogenesis of this abnormality is most closely linked to which of the following conditions?
| A. |
Arterial wall defect due to diabetes
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| B. |
Atherosclerotic plaque deposition
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| C. |
Muscle weakness of the arterial wall
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| D. |
Cystic medial necrosis
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Show Answer
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Correct Answer � C
Explanation
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Answer : C Muscle weakness of the arterial wall
The condition described in question is Berry aneurysm
It is most common type of cerebral aneurysm is a saccular aneurysm, also referred to as a berry aneurysm.
The lesion results from a congenital defect in smooth muscle distribution at a branch point of the arterial wall.
The most common site of berry aneurysm formation is between the anterior communicating and the anterior cerebral arteries in the circle of Willis.
In this case, the berry aneurysm arose from the posterior cerebral artery. Diabetes and atherosclerosis do not cause berry aneurysms. Cystic medial necrosis is associated with dissecting aortic aneurysm.
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