Question
An 84-year-old woman is seen by her primary care physician for evaluation of severe headaches. She noted these several weeks ago, and they have been getting worse. Although she has not had any visual aura, she is concerned that she has been intermittently losing vision in her left eye for the last few days. She denies new weakness or numbness, but she does report jaw pain with eating. Her past medical history includes coronary artery disease requiring a bypass grafting 10 years prior, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and mild depression. A full review of symptoms is notable for night sweats and mild low back pain particularly prominent in the morning. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step?
| A. | Aspirin 150 mg orally daily |
| B. |
Measurement of erythrocyte sedimentation rate |
| C. |
Immediate initiating of glucocorticoid |
| D. |
Referral for temporal artery biopsy |
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