Question
A 24-year-old male presents to a clinic with chronic nasal discharge and occasional headaches. Physical examination reveals atrophic, nasal mucosa and a thinned nasal septum. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?
| A. |
Allergic rhinitis
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| B. |
Aspirin intolerance
|
| C. |
Substance abuse
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| D. |
Hay fever
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Show Answer
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Correct Answer � C
Explanation
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|
Ans. C. Substance abuse
Explanation: Adults who present with headaches, chronic nasal discharge, atrophic nasal mucosa, and thinning of the nasal septum are likely to be long-term intranasal cocaine abusers. Other respiratory tract findings associated with the vasoconstrictive effects of intranasal cocaine abuse include nasal septum perforation, oropharyngeal ulcers, and osteolytic sinusitis.
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