A 2-year-old boy with tetralogy of Fallot posted for a definitive surgical correction next week develops a cyanotic spell in the ward. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the management of a cyanotic spell:
Ans. B. Frusemide
Explanation: Cyanotic spell/Hypercyanotic spell/tet spell which happens primarily because of infundibular spasm and RVOT obstruction precipitated by cry /painful stimulus. All the above steps are included in the management of a tet spell except for furosemide. Knee chest positioning is the first thing that must be done which basically causes decreased venous return and increased systemic vascular resistance and thus decreased the left to right shunting and hence cyanosis.