Question
An infant born to a 27-year-old intravenous drug abuser develops prominent oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and severe lymphopenia during the first year of life. The mother received no prenatal care. She refuses to undergo any kind of testing and demands “quick relief’ for her child. Which of the following prenatal interventions would have most likely prevented this infant’s condition?
| A. |
Viral enzyme inhibitor drug
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| B. |
Cellular receptor inhibitor drug
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| C. |
Prenatal vitamins
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| D. |
Killed vaccine
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Show Answer
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Correct Answer � A
Explanation
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Ans. A. Viral enzyme inhibitor drug
Explanation: Vertical transmission of HIV 1 presents as Oral thrush, interstitial pneumonia, and severe lymphopenia during the first year of life. Maternal prophylaxis during pregnancy with the nucleoside analog zidovudine (ZDV, AZT), a retroviral reverse transcriptase inhibitor, reduces the risk of perinatal transmission by about two-thirds in HIVpositive women who have not previously received antiretroviral therapy. The CDC currently recommends a three-part regimen of zidovudine (ZDV). Antiretroviral treatment ideally should be initiated at 14 weeks of gestation and continued throughout pregnancy, followed by intravenous ZDV during labor, and oral administration of ZDV to the infant for six weeks postpartum.
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