fbpx

MCQ – 89266

Question

A 71-year-old, hospitalized man develops abnormal laboratory studies 4 days after starting treatment for exacerbation of congestive heart failure. He also has a history of osteoarthritis and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He recently completed a course of amikacin for bacterial prostatitis. Before hospitalization, his medications included simvastatin and ibuprofen. Blood pressure is 111/76 mm Hg. Serum studies show a creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL (previously normal) and a BUN of 48 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows a urine osmolality of 600 mOsm/kg and urine sodium of 10 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s renal insufficiency?

A. Volume depletion

B.

Glomerulonephritis

C.

Renal tubular obstruction

D.

Bladder outlet obstruction

Show Answer

Leave a Reply

Discover more from New

Subscribe now to keep reading and get access to the full archive.

Continue reading