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MCQ – 136786

Question

A 30 year old patient of RTA was brought to the emergency room. There was a history of 2 episodes of vomiting. The patient was initially conscious and oriented, but after a few hours, he became drowsy and then progressed to stupor and coma. This sequence of lucid interval was followed by neurological deterioration. What is the preferred treatment option?

A. Observation
B.

Medical management (IV mannitol)

C.

Burr hole evacuation

D.

Decompressive craniectomy

Show Answer

Correct Answer � C

Explanation

Epidural Hematoma
– Etiology: Trauma → middle meningeal artery rupture.
– Classical sign: lucid interval followed by rapid neurological decline.

– Rapid hematoma expansion causes mass effect & risk of brain herniation without urgent evacuation.

CT Image Interpretation:
– Shows biconvex (lentiform), hyperdense lesion in temporoparietal region—classic epidural hematoma.
– Typically does not cross sutures but displaces brain tissue.

Management:
– Neurological deterioration signals neurosurgical emergency.
– Preferred treatment: burr hole evacuation or craniotomy to relieve pressure & remove hematoma.
– Delays risk brain herniation & death.

– Prognosis: excellent if treated early.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Observation – Only for small, asymptomatic bleeds; not for worsening epidural hematoma.
B. IV mannitol – Temporizing to reduce intracranial pressure but not definitive treatment.
D. Decompressive craniectomy – Reserved for diffuse cerebral edema or refractory raised ICP post-evacuation, not isolated epidural hematoma.

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