Question
A 24-year-old patient presents after being in an automobile accident. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is 90/79 mmHg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. The patient also reports severe right hip pain. Radiographic imaging reveals a posterior pelvic fracture. There is a concern for internal bleeding. Which of the following was most likely damaged in this accident?
| A. |
Internal pudendal artery |
| B. |
Common iliac vein |
| C. |
Superior gluteal artery |
| D. |
Internal iliac artery |
Show Answer
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Correct Answer � C Explanation |
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Ans. C
- The superior gluteal artery is the most commonly injured in posterior hip fractures.
- The superior gluteal artery runs out of the pelvic girdle posteriorly towards the buttocks, positioning itself to be injured in a posterior hip fracture.
- Pelvic fractures occur in younger populations primarily in the setting of extreme trauma (i.e., car accidents) as opposed to the elderly who can sustain the injury in less severe traumas (i.e., falls).
- All four of these arteries pass through the pelvic girdle, the iliac and pudendal traveling in an anterior fashion, and both gluteals traveling posteriorly within the girdle.