Question
A 4-year-old boy with a 3-day history of fever, abdominal pain, and limp. O/E, there was left ankle swelling and tenderness along with a palpable rash shown in the image extending from the soles to the gluteal region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
| A. | Meningococcemia |
| B. |
Henoch schonlein purpura |
| C. |
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura |
| D. |
Scrub typhus |
Show Answer
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Correct Answer � B Explanation |
 |
Ans. B. Henoch schonlein purpura
Explanation: An acute onset palpable purpura in the dependent regions like lower limbs and gluteal regions is very characteristic of HSP. It is usually seen in children between 2-10 years of age. Often associated with arthritis, abdominal pain, and elevated ESR and CRP with occasional renal involvement.
Meningococcemia can also present with acute onset purpura, but associated arthritis and a relatively stable child make HSP more likely.
ITP and scrub typhus do not usually present with palpable purpura and arthritis.