Multiple sclerosis

Short Quiz on Multiple sclerosis

Instruction

1. This Test has 11 Questions 
2. There is 1 Mark for each correct Answer

MCQ – 1

Drug of choice for carriers typhoid is:
Ampicillin
Chloramphenicol
Co-trimoxazole
Clindamycin
Explanation :

Ampicillin


MCQ – 2

In multiple sclerosis, the MR imaging will show lesions in which of the following structure?

Thalamus

Grey matter

White matter

Basal ganglia

Explanation :

MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in white matter with a periventricular predominance.

In Multiple sclerosis, demyelinating plaques occur in the periventricular regions, corpus callosum, brainstem, and cerebellum.

Plaques are more periventricular, oval in shape, have irregular margins, and are oriented perpendicular to ventricles.


MCQ – 3

Demyelination is the major feature of Multiple Sclerosis. Which of the following cells forms myelin in the central nervous system?

Astrocytes

Ependymal cells

Microglia

Oligodendrocytes

Explanation :

The myelin sheath is formed by oligodendrocytes in CNS and by Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

The gaps formed between myelin sheath cells along the axons are called nodes of Ranvier.

Since the lipid structure of myelin serves as a good insulator, the myelin sheaths increase the rate of propagation and efficacy of transmission of the impulse along the axon.

The electrical impulse jumps from one node to the next at the rate as fast as 120 m/s. This rapid type of conduction is called saltatory conduction. Demyelination can occur early in life as consequence of congenital metabolic disorders. Demyelination later in life can be repaired with glia, which explains the frequent exacerbations and remissions in MS. It is believed that in MS, multiple mechanisms of immune injury of myelin coexist: cytokine-mediated injury of oligodendrocytes and myelin, digestion of surface myelin antigens by macrophages, complement-mediated injury, and direct injury by CD4+ and CD8+ T cells. This type of injury causes the loss of saltatory conduction in nerve fibers. The exposed axon is susceptible to further injury, resulting in irreversible axonal damage. 

Glial cells do not carry action potentials, but they have many important functions. There are several types of glial cells: astrocytes, which transport nutrients to neurons, hold neurons in place, digest parts of dead neurons, and regulate the composition of extracellular space, and microglia, which possess phagocytic function, clean up debris, and protect the brain from microorganisms.
Ependymal cells form the epithelial lining of the ventricle.

MCQ – 4

Which of the major histocompatibility antigens is associated with an increased risk of Multiple Sclerosis?

A3

B27

DR2

DR3

Explanation :

Histocompatibility antigens are glycoproteins that are expressed at the surface of all vertebrate cells.

Human HLA antigens are present on the surface of all nucleated cells.

Major histocompatibility antigens are major antigens responsible for tissue recognition, and stimulate the acute, rapid type of graft rejection.

Each person has unique HLA antigens.

The presence of some HLA antigens have been correlated with the certain autoimmune diseases.

Susceptibility to MS is linked to the HLA-DR2 haplotype.

The severity of iron overload in hemochromatosis is determined predominantly by genetic factors, namely the expression of HLA-A3 region of the major histocompatibility complex.
 
85% of patients with Reiter’s syndrome will have HLA-B27 antigen present on leukocytes.
There is a strong association between type 1 diabetes mellitus and specific HLA-D phenotypes, particularly HLA-DR3.
Also Know:
The onset of multiple sclerosis is usually in the years from 20 to 40.
Sixty percent of patients are female.There is an increased familial incidence, a 25% concordance in identical twins compared with 2–3% in fraternal twins, and an association with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B7 and -DR2.
Ref: Chandrasoma P., Taylor C.R. (1998). Chapter 64. The Central Nervous System: III. Traumatic, Vascular, Degenerative, & Metabolic Diseases. In P. Chandrasoma, C.R. Taylor (Eds), Concise Pathology, 3e.

 


MCQ – 5

Which of the following is the only drug is found to be beneficial in halting the progression on EDSS of multiple sclerosis:

Glatiramer

IFN-beta

Natalizumab

Methotrexate

Explanation :

Ans is ‘c’ i.e. Natalizumab

*  EDSS (Expanded disability status scale) is a method of quantifying disability in multiple sclerosis.

* EDSS steps 1.0 to 4.5 refer to people with MS who are fully ambulatory. EDSS steps 5.0 to 9.5 are defined by the impairment in amubulation. EDSS 10 is defined as death due to MS.

*  Natalizumab silences disease activity and rapidly improves disability status and walking performance, possibly through delayed relapse recovery in patients with RRMS who had shown a high level of disease activity under other disease modifying drugs for multiple sclerosis.


MCQ – 6

Which of the following is the most common initial presenting feature of multiple sclerosis ?

Optic Neuritis

Cerebellar Ataxia

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

Diplopia

Explanation :

Ans.A. Optic Neuritis

Optic Neuritis is the most frequent initial presenting feature of MS amongst the options provided.

The most common earliest presenting features of multiple sclerosis are transient sensory defects followed by visual disturbances due to optic neuritis.

Initial Symptoms of MS

Symptom

Percent of Cases

Symptom

Percent of Cases

Sensory loss

37

Lhermitte’s

3

Optic neuritis

36

Pain

3

Weakness

35

Dementia

2

Paresthesias

24

Visual loss

2

Diplopia

15

Facial palsy

1

Ataxia

11

Impotence

1

Vertigo

6

Myokymia

1

Paroxysmal attacks

4

Epilepsy

1

Bladder

4

Falling

1

 


MCQ – 7

Which of the following clinical features of demyelinating myelopathy least likely suggests a progression to multiple sclerosis?

Complete cord transection

Bilateral visual loss

Absence of oligoclonal bands

Poor prognosis

Explanation :

Answer: c. Absence of oligoclonal bands (Ref Harrison I9/e p2656. 18/e p3372)

Oligoclonal bands are variable; but when bands are present, a diagnosis of MS is more likely, thus absence of oligoclonal bands suggests a less likely progression to MS.


MCQ – 8

Most common type of multiple sclerosis?

Relapsing remitting type

Secondry progressive multiple sclerosis

Progresive relapsing multiple scelrosis

Primary progresive multiple sclerosis

Explanation :

Answer- A. Relapsing remitting type

Repapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS)

This is the most common form of multiple sclerosis.

About 85% of people with M.S. are initially diagnosed with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis.


MCQ – 9

Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis  

CT

MRI

USG

PET

Explanation :

Answer- B. MRI

MRI is the investigation of choice for demyelinating disorder, e.g. multiple sclerosis.


MCQ – 10

In multiple sclerosis, slow conduction of motor and the sensory pathways is due to?

Defect in the node of Ranvier

Loss of myelin sheath

Leaking of sodium channels

Leaking calcium channels

Explanation :

Ans: B. Loss of the myelin sheath

  • Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disorder in which the immune system attacks and damages the myelin sheath, which is the protective covering around nerve fibers in the central nervous system. It increases the speed at which these signals are conducted by allowing the electrical impulses to jump between gaps in the myelin, known as nodes of Ranvier, rather than moving continuously along the nerve fiber.
    When the myelin sheath is damaged or lost, as in MS, this rapid, saltatory conduction is disrupted. As a result, electrical impulses are slowed down or may not be conducted at all, leading to the various neurological symptoms characteristic of MS.

MCQ – 11

A 56-year-old pt has been diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis. She presents with a positive Romberg’s test. She also has weakness and loss of sensations in all her 4 limbs. Which site is most likely to be affected?

Cerebral cortex

Cerebellum

Cervical spinal cord

Thoracic spinal cord

Explanation :

Answer C) Cervical spinal cord

Explanation:

Cervical Spinal Cord Section

  • The nerves exiting the vertebrae in the neck area or cervical segments are referred to as C1 through C8. 

  • These nerve control signals to the neck, arms, hands, and internal organs. Injuries to these areas result in tetraplegia(also known as quadriplegia)

  • Injuries at the cervical level can distort where your body is positioned in space (proprioception.)

  • An injury above the C3 level may require a ventilator for breathing.

Thoracic Spinal Cord Section

  • Nerves in the thoracic or rib cage area (T1 through T12) relay signals to the torso and some parts of the arms.

  • Individuals with injuries from T1 to T8 usually affect control of the upper torso, limiting trunk movement and sensation as the result of a lack of abdominal muscle control. This can affect balance as well as proprioception (where your body is in space).

  • Those individuals with lower thoracic injuries (T9 through T12) have trunk control and some abdominal muscle control.


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