Category: Quiz

Medical Termination Of Pregnancy (Mtp) Act

MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY (MTP) ACT

Q. 1

For MTP consent is taken from

 A

Wife only

 B

Husband only

 C

Both

 D

Neither

Q. 1

For MTP consent is taken from

 A

Wife only

 B

Husband only

 C

Both

 D

Neither

Ans. A

Explanation:

A i.e. Wife only

– MTP Act 1971 allows registered medical practioner with certified experience (by CMO, of assisting  25 MTP cases) to perform abortion in a licenced setup (Governement or private). The consent of only women is required before conducting abortion; written consent of guardian is required if the women is a minor or mentally ill. Consent of husband is not necessaryQ.

MTP Act 1971 does not allow abortion on poor socioeconomic grounds and if only husband (not mother) is willingQ. Rape; contraceptive failure, use of cytotoxic drugs, risk of delivering seriously handicapped baby, and injury to physical & mental health of mother are valid grounds for MTP.


Q. 2

The MTP act defines the following –

 A

Who should do termination of pregnancy

 B

Where it should be done

 C

When it should be done

 D

All of the above

Q. 2

The MTP act defines the following –

 A

Who should do termination of pregnancy

 B

Where it should be done

 C

When it should be done

 D

All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘d’ i.e., All of the above 

Medical termination of pregnancy act (1971)

o The MTP act, 1971 lays down

1.       The conditions under which a pregnancy can be terminated.

2.       The person or persons who can perform such terminations.

3.       The place where such terminations can be performed.


Q. 3

Consent from guardian/husband for MTP is required if –

 A

Female is below 28 years of age

 B

Female is below 23 years of age

 C

Female is below 17 years of age

 D

All

Q. 3

Consent from guardian/husband for MTP is required if –

 A

Female is below 28 years of age

 B

Female is below 23 years of age

 C

Female is below 17 years of age

 D

All

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., Female is below 17 years of age 

The conditions under which a pregnancy can be terminated under the MTP Act. 1971 :

There are 5 conditions that have been identified in the Act :

a.       Medical – where continuation of the pregnancy might endanger the mother’s life or cause grave injury to her physical or mental health.

b.       Eugenic – where there is substantial risk of the child being born with serious handicaps due to physical or mental abnormalities.

c.        Humanitarian – where pregnancy is the result of rape

d.       Socio-economic – where actual or reasonably foreseeable environments (whether social or economic could lead to risk of injury to the health of the mother).

e.        Failure of contraceptive devices – The anguish caused by an unwanted pregnancy resulting from a failure of any contraceptive device or method can be presumed to constitute a grave mental injury to the health of the mother. This condition is a unique feature of the Indian law and virtually allows abortion on request, in view of the difficulty of proving that a pregnancy was not caused by failure of contraception.

The written consent of the guardian is necessary before performing abortion in women under 18 years of age, and in lunatics even if they are older than 18 years.

Quiz In Between


Q. 4

MTP Act in India does not permit termination of pregnancy after:       

Delhi 06; AP 06; JIPMER 14

 A

12 weeks

 B

16 weeks

 C

20 weeks

 D

24 weeks

Q. 4

MTP Act in India does not permit termination of pregnancy after:       

Delhi 06; AP 06; JIPMER 14

 A

12 weeks

 B

16 weeks

 C

20 weeks

 D

24 weeks

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. 20 weeks


Q. 5

According to MTP Act, 2 doctors opinion is required when pregnancy is:        

Maharashtra 09

 A

6 weeks

 B

10 weeks

 C

> 12 weeks

 D

> 20 weeks

Q. 5

According to MTP Act, 2 doctors opinion is required when pregnancy is:        

Maharashtra 09

 A

6 weeks

 B

10 weeks

 C

> 12 weeks

 D

> 20 weeks

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. > 12 weeks


Q. 6

Under the MTP Act, termination of pregnancy can be done by:          

Rohtak 08

 A

Any registered medical practitioner (RMP)

 B

Any RMP with MD/MS degree in Obs and Gynae

 C

Any RMP with 6 months residency in any depar intent

 D

Any RMP with a minimum of 3 months residency in Obs and Gynae

Q. 6

Under the MTP Act, termination of pregnancy can be done by:          

Rohtak 08

 A

Any registered medical practitioner (RMP)

 B

Any RMP with MD/MS degree in Obs and Gynae

 C

Any RMP with 6 months residency in any depar intent

 D

Any RMP with a minimum of 3 months residency in Obs and Gynae

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. Any RMP with MD/MS degree in Obs and Gynae

Quiz In Between


Q. 7

Indication of MTP-

 A

Pregnancy due to rape

 B

Contraceptive failure

 C

Pregnancy endangering mother’s life

 D

All of the above

Q. 7

Indication of MTP-

 A

Pregnancy due to rape

 B

Contraceptive failure

 C

Pregnancy endangering mother’s life

 D

All of the above

Ans. D

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘d’ i.e., All of the above

The conditions under which pregnancy can be terminated under the MTPAct

  • There are 4 conditions that have been identified in the Act :
  1. Medical – Where continuation of the pregnancy might endanger the mother’s life or cause grave injury to her physical or mental health.
  2. Eugenic – Where there is substantial risk of the child being born with serious handicaps due to physical or mental abnormalities.
  3. Humanitarian – Where pregnancy is the result of rape.
  4. Failure of contraceptive devices – The anguish caused by an unwanted pregnancy resulting from a failure of any contraceptive device or method can be presumed to constitute a grave mental injury to the health of the mother. This condition is a unique feature of the Indian law and virtually allows abortion on request, in view of the difficulty of proving that a pregnancy was not caused by failure of contraception

Q. 8

MTP Act of 1971 provides for termination of pregnancy till how many weeks of pregnancy ‑

 A

12 weeks

 B

16 weeks

 C

20 weeks

 D

24 weeks

Q. 8

MTP Act of 1971 provides for termination of pregnancy till how many weeks of pregnancy ‑

 A

12 weeks

 B

16 weeks

 C

20 weeks

 D

24 weeks

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., 20 weeks 

Medical termination of pregnancy act (19711

  • The MTP act, 1971 lays down
  1. The conditions under which a pregnancy can be terminated.
  2. The person or persons who can perform such terminations.
  3. The place where such terminations can be performed.
  4. The conditions under which a pregnancy can be terminated under the MTPAct. 1971 :
  5. There are 5 conditions that have been identified in the Act :
  • Medical – where continuation of the pregnancy might endanger the mother’s life or cause grave injury to her physical or mental health.
  • Eugenic – where there is substantial risk of the child being born with serious handicaps due to physical or mental abnormalities.
  • Humanitarian – where pregnancy is the result of rape
  • Socio-economic – where actual or reasonably foreseeable environments (whether social or economic could lead to risk of injury to the health of the mother).
  • Failure of contraceptive devices – The anguish caused by an unwanted pregnancy resulting from a failure of any contraceptive device or method can be presumed to constitute a grave mental injury to the health of the mother. This condition is a unique feature of the Indian law and virtually allows abortion on request, in view of the difficulty of proving that a pregnancy was not caused by failure of contraception.
  • The written consent of the guardian is necessary before performing abortion in women under 18 years of age, and in lunatics even if they are older than 18 years.
  • The person or persons who can perform abortion The Act provides safeguards to the mother by authorising only a Registered Medical Practitioner having experience in gynaecology and obstetrics to perform abortion where the length of pregnancy does not exceed 12 weeks. o However, where the pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks and is not more than 20 weeks, the opinion of two Ragistered o Medical Practitioners is necessary to terminate the pregnancy.
  • Where abortion can be done
  • The Act stipulates that no termination of pregnancy shall be made at any place other than a hospital established or maintained by Government or a place approved for the purpose of this Act by Government.
  • Abortion services are provided in hospitals in strict confidence. The name of the abortion seeker is kept confidential, since abortion has been treated statutorily as a personal matter.

Quiz In Between



Undertaker Fracture,Stalking,para-suicide, heat and cold stoke

Undertaker Fracture,Stalking,para-suicide, heat and cold stroke

Q. 1

Which among the following sites are involved in “undertakers fracture”?

 A

Skull

 B

Cervical spine

 C

Pelvis

 D

Mandible

Q. 1

Which among the following sites are involved in “undertakers fracture”?

 A

Skull

 B

Cervical spine

 C

Pelvis

 D

Mandible

Ans. B

Explanation:

The so called undertaker fracture is caused due to the head falling backward forcibly after death.

It usually causes one of intervertebral discs (usually around C6 or C7) to tear open and results in the subluxation of the lower cervical spine.

Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, Edition 21, Page – 92


Q. 2

In heat stroke, skin will be:               

September 2012

 A

Warm

 B

Normal

 C

Cold

 D

Cyanosis

Q. 2

In heat stroke, skin will be:               

September 2012

 A

Warm

 B

Normal

 C

Cold

 D

Cyanosis

Ans. A

Explanation:

Ans. A i.e. Warm

Heat stroke presents with a hyperthermia of greater than 40.6 °C (105.1 °F) in combination with confusion and a lack of sweating.


Q. 3

NOT seen in heat stroke: 

Kerala 06

 A

Hypovolemic shock

 B

Rhabdomyolysis

 C

Pancreatitis

 D

Cerebral edema

Q. 3

NOT seen in heat stroke: 

Kerala 06

 A

Hypovolemic shock

 B

Rhabdomyolysis

 C

Pancreatitis

 D

Cerebral edema

Ans. A

Explanation:

Ans. Hypovolemic shock

Quiz In Between


Q. 4

Undertaker’s fracture is seen at the level of cervical vertebra:

 A

C1-C2

 B

C3-C4

 C

C5-C6

 D

C6-C7

Q. 4

Undertaker’s fracture is seen at the level of cervical vertebra:

 A

C1-C2

 B

C3-C4

 C

C5-C6

 D

C6-C7

Ans. D

Explanation:

Ans. C6-C7

  • It is caused clue to the head falling backwards forcibly after death, which tears open one of the intervertebral discs, usually around C6 and C7.
  • Due to the prolapse of the cervical intervertebral disc, there is increased tendency of subluxation of the lower cervical spine.

Q. 5

What is the most common cause of parasuicide?

 A

Drug ingestion

 B

Hanging

 C

Cutting wrist

 D

Firearms

Q. 5

What is the most common cause of parasuicide?

 A

Drug ingestion

 B

Hanging

 C

Cutting wrist

 D

Firearms

Ans. A

Explanation:

Ans. a. Drug ingestion

Parasuicide is a suicide attempt or gesture and self-harm where there is no result in death. It is a non7fatal act in which a person deliberately causes injury to him or herself or ingests any prescribed or generally recognized therapeutic dose in excess. It is considered to be a serious public health issue. Parasuicide is the strongest known indicator for a future successful suicide attempt. Examples of suicidal gestures include cutting, where the cut is not deep enough to cause significant blood loss, or taking a non-lethal overdose of medication.’- http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parasuicide

`Maximum cases of near-suicides are due to drug overdose. In India, wrist cutting is equally common, but drug overdose is by far the most common cause of parasuicide in the world.’- Methods used for parasuicide: results of the WHO/EURO Multicentre Study on Parasuicide.

Quiz In Between



Ethylene glycol & Boric acid poisoning

Ethylene glycol & Boric acid poisoning

Q. 1

Which of the properties accounts for ethanol’s use in ethylene glycol poisoning?

 A

Competitive inhibitor of NADPH oxidase

 B

Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

 C

Competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase

 D

Non-competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase

Q. 1

Which of the properties accounts for ethanol’s use in ethylene glycol poisoning?

 A

Competitive inhibitor of NADPH oxidase

 B

Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase

 C

Competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase

 D

Non-competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ethanol acts by competing with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase, the first enzyme in the degradation pathway.

Because ethanol has a much higher affinity for alcohol dehydrogenase, about a 100-times greater affinity, it successfully blocks the breakdown of ethylene glycol into glycoaldehyde, which prevents the further degradation.

Ref: Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry, 4th Edition, Page 336; Updates in Emergency Medicine By John Cahill, 2002, Page 115


Q. 2

Antidote for Ethylene glycol poisoning-

 A

Methyl violet

 B

Methyl violet

 C

Fomepizole

 D

All

Q. 2

Antidote for Ethylene glycol poisoning-

 A

Methyl violet

 B

Methyl violet

 C

Fomepizole

 D

All

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., Fomepizole

o I.V. fomepizole or ethanol is given in ethylene glycol poisoning.

o Fomepizole (an alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor) is the DOC.


Q. 3

Ethanol is used for ethylene glycol poisoning because it is a: 

JIPMER 13

 A

Competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase

 B

Higher affinity for alcohol dehydrogenase

 C

Chemically combines and neutralizes ethylene glycol

 D

A and B

Q. 3

Ethanol is used for ethylene glycol poisoning because it is a: 

JIPMER 13

 A

Competitive inhibitor of aldehyde dehydrogenase

 B

Higher affinity for alcohol dehydrogenase

 C

Chemically combines and neutralizes ethylene glycol

 D

A and B

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. Higher affinity for alcohol dehydrogenase

Competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase [Ref Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry 4th/e p. 336]


Q. 4

Ethylene glycol when ingested affects kidney by forming:      

NEET 13

 A

Formaldehyde

 B

Oxalates

 C

Phytates

 D

Phosphates

Q. 4

Ethylene glycol when ingested affects kidney by forming:      

NEET 13

 A

Formaldehyde

 B

Oxalates

 C

Phytates

 D

Phosphates

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. Oxalates

Quiz In Between



Miscellaneous Poisoning

MISCELLANEOUS POISONING

Q. 1

Sewer gas is:

 A

Phosgene

 B

H2S

 C

CO2

 D

b and c

Q. 1

Sewer gas is:

 A

Phosgene

 B

H2S

 C

CO2

 D

b and c

Ans. D

Explanation:

B i.e. H2S > C i.e. CO2

Name

Composition

Sewer gas

– H2S, with CO2 &

MethaneQ

Marsh gas

– Methane

War gases

 

– Blistering

– Mustard gas &

gas

B.A.L (lewisite

gas)

– Tear gas

– BBC (Bromo

 

Benzyl Cyanide)

 

– CAP (Chlor Aceto

 

Phenone)

 

– KSK (Ethyl lido

acetate)

– Sickening

– Diphenyl amine

gas

chlor arsine


Q. 2

Orange-skin cornea results due to:

 A

Chalcosis

 B

Siderosis

 C

Ammonia burn

 D

Mustard gas

Q. 2

Orange-skin cornea results due to:

 A

Chalcosis

 B

Siderosis

 C

Ammonia burn

 D

Mustard gas

Ans. D

Explanation:

Ans. Mustard gas


Q. 3

Blistering war gas is:

Maharashtra 09

 A

Chlorine gas

 B

Mustard gas

 C

HCN gas

 D

Tabun

Q. 3

Blistering war gas is:

Maharashtra 09

 A

Chlorine gas

 B

Mustard gas

 C

HCN gas

 D

Tabun

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. Mustard gas

Quiz In Between



DELIRIANT POISONS: Dhatura,Strychnine

DELIRIANT POISONS: Dhatura,Strychnine

Q. 1

Signs and symptoms usually develop within 15–30 minutes of strychnine ingestion. What is the fatal dose of strychnine?

 A

10-15 mg

 B

20-40 mg

 C

60-100 mg

 D

100-120 mg

Q. 1

Signs and symptoms usually develop within 15–30 minutes of strychnine ingestion. What is the fatal dose of strychnine?

 A

10-15 mg

 B

20-40 mg

 C

60-100 mg

 D

100-120 mg

Ans. C

Explanation:

Strychnine poisoning:

  • It is an alkaloid derived from the seeds of the tree Strychnos nux-vomica.
  • The potentially fatal dose of strychnine is approximately 50–100 mg (1 mg/kg) and fatal period is 1-2 hours.
  • Strychnine competitively antagonizes glycine, an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by postsynaptic inhibitory neurons in the spinal cord.
  • Muscular stiffness and painful cramps precede generalized muscle contractions, extensor muscle spasms, and opisthotonus. 
  • Death usually is caused by respiratory arrest that results from intense contraction of the respiratory muscles.
 
Ref: Nordt S.P. (2012). Chapter 145. Strychnine. In K.R. Olson (Ed), Poisoning & Drug Overdose, 6e.

Q. 2

Which of the following is the site of action of strychnine poison for its toxicity?

 A

Heart

 B

Anterior horn cells

 C

Posterior horn cells

 D

All of the above

Q. 2

Which of the following is the site of action of strychnine poison for its toxicity?

 A

Heart

 B

Anterior horn cells

 C

Posterior horn cells

 D

All of the above

Ans. B

Explanation:

Strychnine competitively blocks ventral horn motor neuron postganglionic receptor sites in the spinal cord and prevents the effects of glycine, an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by postsynaptic inhibitory neurons in the spinal cord.
Strychnine binds to the chloride ion channel, causing increased neuronal excitability and exaggerated reflex arcs.
This results in generalized seizure-like contraction of skeletal muscles.
Simultaneous contraction of opposing flexor and extensor muscles causes severe muscle injury, with rhabdomyolysis, myoglobinuria, and, in some cases, acute renal failure.
 
Ref: Nordt S.P. (2012). Chapter 145. Strychnine. In K.R. Olson (Ed), Poisoning & Drug Overdose, 6e.

Q. 3

True about strychnine poisoning is :

 A

All muscles affected at the same time

 B

Shoulder girdle affected first

 C

Pelvic girdle affected first

 D

None of the above

Q. 3

True about strychnine poisoning is :

 A

All muscles affected at the same time

 B

Shoulder girdle affected first

 C

Pelvic girdle affected first

 D

None of the above

Ans. A

Explanation:

A i.e. All muscles affected at same time

Quiz In Between


Q. 4

Nux vomica seeds contain 2 alkaloids, strychnine and :

 A

Hyoscine

 B

Hyoscyamine

 C

Brucine

 D

Atropine

Q. 4

Nux vomica seeds contain 2 alkaloids, strychnine and :

 A

Hyoscine

 B

Hyoscyamine

 C

Brucine

 D

Atropine

Ans. C

Explanation:

C i.e. Brucine


Q. 5

The active principles of Dhatura are all of the following except :

 A

Pyricatachol

 B

Hyoscyamine

 C

Atropine

 D

Hyoscine

Q. 5

The active principles of Dhatura are all of the following except :

 A

Pyricatachol

 B

Hyoscyamine

 C

Atropine

 D

Hyoscine

Ans. A

Explanation:

A i.e. Pyricatachol


Q. 6

All the following are characteristic of Dhatura poisoning except:

 A

Delirium

 B

Diplopia

 C

Pin-point pupils

 D

Dysphagia

Q. 6

All the following are characteristic of Dhatura poisoning except:

 A

Delirium

 B

Diplopia

 C

Pin-point pupils

 D

Dysphagia

Ans. C

Explanation:

C i.e. Pinpoint pupil

Quiz In Between


Q. 7

Following is not present in dhatura:           

JIPMER 11

 A

Hyoscine

 B

Hyoscyamine

 C

Muscarine

 D

Atropine

Q. 7

Following is not present in dhatura:           

JIPMER 11

 A

Hyoscine

 B

Hyoscyamine

 C

Muscarine

 D

Atropine

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. Muscarine


Q. 8

Treatment of dhatura poisoning is done with:

NEET 15

 A

Pilocarpine

 B

Naloxone

 C

Physostigmine

 D

Neostigmine

Q. 8

Treatment of dhatura poisoning is done with:

NEET 15

 A

Pilocarpine

 B

Naloxone

 C

Physostigmine

 D

Neostigmine

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. Physostigmine


Q. 9

Strychnine acts by inhibiting:       

COMEDK 15

 A

GABA

 B

Glycine

 C

Acetylcholine

 D

Dopamine

Q. 9

Strychnine acts by inhibiting:       

COMEDK 15

 A

GABA

 B

Glycine

 C

Acetylcholine

 D

Dopamine

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. Glycine

Quiz In Between


Q. 10

Antidote for strychnine poisoning is:          

NEET 13

 A

Fomepizole

 B

Physotigmine

 C

Barbiturates

 D

Naloxone

Q. 10

Antidote for strychnine poisoning is:          

NEET 13

 A

Fomepizole

 B

Physotigmine

 C

Barbiturates

 D

Naloxone

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. Barbiturates


Q. 11

In dhatura poisoning 9 ‘Ds’ include all except ‑

 A

Diarrhea

 B

Dysphagia

 C

Dilated pupil

 D

Drowsiners

Q. 11

In dhatura poisoning 9 ‘Ds’ include all except ‑

 A

Diarrhea

 B

Dysphagia

 C

Dilated pupil

 D

Drowsiners

Ans. A

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Diarrhea

9-D’ manifestations of Dhatura (anticholinergic) poisoning

  1. Dry hot skin i.e. ‘Hot as a hare’.
  2. Dialation of cutaneous blood vessels 1/t facial i.e. ‘Red as a beet’.
  3. Dialation of pupils with loss of accomodation and unresponsiveness to light i.e. ‘Blind as a bat’.
  4. Dryness of mouth and throat i.e. ‘Dry as a bone’.
  5. Difficulty in talking.
  6. Dysphagia (difficulty in swallowing)
  7. Drunken gait
  8. Drowsiness
  9. Delirium i.e. ‘Mad as wet hen’
  • So symptoms are described as ‘Dry as a bone, Red as a beet, Hot as hare, Blind as a bat and Mad as a wet hen’.

Quiz In Between



CNS DEPRESSANTS: Barbiturate poisoning & Chloral hydrate

CNS DEPRESSANTS: Barbiturate poisoning & Chloral hydrate


Barbiturate  poisoning

  • It  is  mostly  suicidal, sometimes  accidental.
  • Manifestations  are due  to  excessive  CNS  depression.
  • patient  is  flabby  and  comatose  with shallow  and failing  respiration  cyanosis.
  • fall  in  BP and  cardiovascular  collapse.
  • Renal shut  down,  pulmonary complications,  bullous eruption  (barbiturate  blisters).
  • Hypothermia ,  Finally  there  is  coma.
  • Individuals treated with drugs such as barbiturates show hypertrophy of the smooth endoplamic reticulum (ER) in hepatocytes

Important  specific  features  are

  • constricted  pupil (there  may  be  alternate  constriction and dilatation,  i.e. happus reaction).
  • liquid  gold  urine.

 Treatment  includes  :

  • Gastric  lavage
  • Haemodialsis
  • Supportive  measures (O2, assissed  respiration,  maintenance  of BP).
  • Forced  alkaline  diuresis.

Chloral Hydrate

  • Chloral  hydrate  is  a colourless,  crystalline  substance  having  peculiar  pungent  odor  and pungent bitter test.
  • It  is  a powerful  hypnotic in doses  produces  natural  sleep,  but in  larger  doses  depresses  CNS  and paralyses  vital centers.
  • It  is  given  in  food  or drink  to  make person  helpless,  called  knock out drops.
  • Mickey finn is  a  combination  of alcohol and chloral  hydrate.
  • Chloral  hydrate  is  also  called  dry  wine.

Exam Important

Barbiturate  poisoning:

  • patient  is  flabby  and  comatose  with shallow  and failing  respiration  cyanosis.
  • fall  in  BP and  cardiovascular  collapse
  • Hypothermia ,  Finally  there  is  coma.
  • Individuals treated with drugs such as barbiturates show hypertrophy of the smooth endoplamic reticulum (ER) in hepatocytes.

Chloral Hydrate:

  • crystalline  substance  having  peculiar  pungent  odor  and pungent bitter test.
  • It  is  given  in  food  or drink  to  make person  helpless,  called  knock out drops.
  • Mickey finn is  a  combination  of alcohol and chloral  hydrate.
  • Chloral  hydrate  is  also  called  dry  wine
Don’t Forget to Solve all the previous Year Question asked on CNS DEPRESSANTS: Barbiturate poisoning & Chloral hydrate

Module Below Start Quiz

Phosphorus Poisioning

phosphorous poisoning

Q. 1

CuSO4 was used as an antidote for:

Maharashtra 11

 A

Dhatura poisoning

 B

Cocaine poisoning

 C

Phosphorus poisoning

 D

Opium poisoning

Q. 1

CuSO4 was used as an antidote for:

Maharashtra 11

 A

Dhatura poisoning

 B

Cocaine poisoning

 C

Phosphorus poisoning

 D

Opium poisoning

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. Phosphorus poisoning


Q. 2

Yellow/fatty liver is characteristically seen in:

Jharkhand 11

 A

Datura poisoning

 B

Cocaine poisoning

 C

Phosphorus poisoning

 D

Opium poisoning

Q. 2

Yellow/fatty liver is characteristically seen in:

Jharkhand 11

 A

Datura poisoning

 B

Cocaine poisoning

 C

Phosphorus poisoning

 D

Opium poisoning

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. Phosphorus poisoning

Quiz In Between



Vegetables, Cantharides and Scorpion Poisons

Vegetable And Cantharides Poisons

Q. 1

Sin needle used to kill animals made of :

 A

Dhatura seeds

 B

Rati seeds

 C

Lead peroxide

 D

Arsenic

Q. 1

Sin needle used to kill animals made of :

 A

Dhatura seeds

 B

Rati seeds

 C

Lead peroxide

 D

Arsenic

Ans. B

Explanation:

B i.e. Rati seeds


Q. 2

Vegetable viper snake poison is

 A

Croton

 B

Madar

 C

Abrus

 D

Semicarpus

Q. 2

Vegetable viper snake poison is

 A

Croton

 B

Madar

 C

Abrus

 D

Semicarpus

Ans. C

Explanation:

C i.e. Abrus


Q. 3

One of the following substance produce injuries which stimulate confusion :

 A

Semicarpus anacardium

 B

Ricinus communis

 C

Abrus percatorius

 D

Capsium annum

Q. 3

One of the following substance produce injuries which stimulate confusion :

 A

Semicarpus anacardium

 B

Ricinus communis

 C

Abrus percatorius

 D

Capsium annum

Ans. A

Explanation:

A i.e. Semicarpus anacardium

Quiz In Between


Q. 4

Average fatal dose of croton oil seed is :

 A

500 drops

 B

Hand ful of seeds

 C

About 4 to 5 drops

 D

20 drops

Q. 4

Average fatal dose of croton oil seed is :

 A

500 drops

 B

Hand ful of seeds

 C

About 4 to 5 drops

 D

20 drops

Ans. D

Explanation:

D i.e. 20 drops


Q. 5

Which of the following protein synthesis inhibitor are non‑plant toxin:

 A

Streptomycin

 B

Abrin

 C

Ricin

 D

Emetine

Q. 5

Which of the following protein synthesis inhibitor are non‑plant toxin:

 A

Streptomycin

 B

Abrin

 C

Ricin

 D

Emetine

Ans. A

Explanation:

A i.e. Streptomycin



Corrosives Poisoning: Magenstrasse

Corrosives Poisoning: Magenstrasse

Q. 1

Magenstrasse refers to:

 A

Signs of magnesium poisoning

 B

Marks of violence in case of poisoning

 C

Route of acidic poisons in stomach

 D

Color change of mucosa seen in corrosives

Q. 1

Magenstrasse refers to:

 A

Signs of magnesium poisoning

 B

Marks of violence in case of poisoning

 C

Route of acidic poisons in stomach

 D

Color change of mucosa seen in corrosives

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. Route of acidic poisons in stomach

Quiz In Between



Laws of poisoning

Laws of poisoning

Q. 1

Which of the following statements about the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances ACT (NDPS ) is true:

 A

Provides severe punishment for drug users and drug peddlers alike

 B

Recommends treatment / rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers

 C

Recommends treatment / rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers

 D

Farmers growing opium are permitted to grow and consume unlimited amounts of opium

Q. 1

Which of the following statements about the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances ACT (NDPS ) is true:

 A

Provides severe punishment for drug users and drug peddlers alike

 B

Recommends treatment / rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers

 C

Recommends treatment / rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers

 D

Farmers growing opium are permitted to grow and consume unlimited amounts of opium

Ans. B

Explanation:

B i.e. Recommends treatment/ rehabilitation of drug users and punishment for drug peddlers

Alcohol is not included in NDPS Act, which regulates and prohibits all activities (from cultivation to consumption) of narcotic drugs & psychotropic substances except for medicinal & scientific purpose. An amendment has diluted & made the punishment less severe for drug offendersQ. It provides identification, treatment & rehabilitation of drug addicts.


Q. 2

Narcotic Drugs and psychotropic substance act was passed in the year:

 A

1981

 B

1983

 C

1985

 D

1986

Q. 2

Narcotic Drugs and psychotropic substance act was passed in the year:

 A

1981

 B

1983

 C

1985

 D

1986

Ans. C

Explanation:

C i.e. 1985


Q. 3

Under the ‘NDPS Act’ following drugs are included, except:       

NIMHANS 08

 A

Opium/heroin

 B

Hashish

 C

Amphetamine

 D

Alcohol

Q. 3

Under the ‘NDPS Act’ following drugs are included, except:       

NIMHANS 08

 A

Opium/heroin

 B

Hashish

 C

Amphetamine

 D

Alcohol

Ans. D

Explanation:

Ans. Alcohol

Quiz In Between



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