MCQ – 100842

Question

A 58-year-old male presents to a PHC for a routine check-up. His blood pressure readings on two separate occasions are 148/90 mmHg and 152/96 mmHg. He is asymptomatic and has no known comorbidities. What is the most appropriate next step in management according to current hypertension guidelines?

A.

Initiate treatment only if BP exceeds 160/100 mmHg

B.

Start Amlodipine 5 mg once daily and advise follow-up after a month

C.

Refer to a higher center for further evaluation

D.

Start 2 medicines (single-pill combo preferred) + lifestyle

Show Answer

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