Question
A young male presents with a testicular mass on the right side. The AFP is elevated while the HCG is normal. The most appropriate next step is
| A. |
Biopsy
|
| B. |
USG
|
| C. |
Orchidectomy
|
| D. |
Wait and Watch
|
Show Answer
|
Correct Answer » B
Explanation
|
|
Chronology in Suspected Testicular Tumor
Step 1 — Scrotal USG
- First-line investigation
- Distinguishes:
- Intratesticular vs extratesticular lesion
- Solid vs cystic mass
Step 2 — Tumor Markers
These help in:
- Diagnosis
- Prognosis
- Staging
- Follow-up
Step 3 — Radical Inguinal Orchidectomy
- Definitive diagnostic and therapeutic procedure
- Histopathology confirms tumor type
Biopsy is contraindicated
Because it may:
- Seed tumor cells
- Disrupt lymphatic drainage
- Increase recurrence risk
Hence:
- No FNAC
- No transscrotal biopsy
