MCQ – 88528

Question

A 65-year-old HIV infected man comes to the clinic with the complaint of dry cough for

the past four weeks. He also complains of mild fever and dyspnea on exertion for the

past ten days. He admits to being inconsistent in taking his antiretroviral drugs. He

drinks a glass of wine thrice a week but does not smoke or do drugs. Currently, his

 temperature is 101 F, and he is hemodynamically stable. Physical examination,

including that of his lungs, is noncontributory. His oxygen saturation, which is 99%

while he is breathing ambient air, drops down to 94% on exertion. Lab work reports a

CD4 count of 65 cells/mm3 and a creatinine of a.0 mg/dL. A subsequent chest x-ray

reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following is the best next step in the

management of this patient’s condition?


A.

Antiretroviral therapy and oral prednisone

B.

Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, two double-strength tablets given every six or eight hours

C.

Intravenous trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, 15 to 20 mg/kg/day

D.

Intravenous pentamidine

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