Question
A 16-year-old ballerina presents with a history of recurrent collapse. Her vitals were stable and clinical examination was unremarkable. Her EKG showed inverted T waves in lead V2 and Vc. On questioning, she said that the episodes are more frequent since the last few weeks. She also gave a history of the unexplained death of her brother one year back while he was at sleep. What is the likely diagnosis?
| A. |
Brugada syndrome
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| B. |
Familial sick sinus syndrome
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| C. |
Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
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| D. |
Wellens syndrome
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Show Answer
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Correct Answer � D
Explanation
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|
Answer : D Wellens syndrome
he most common abnormality in arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC) consists of T wave inversion in the precordial leads that reflects the right ventricle (V1–V3).
The management options include beta blockers, antiarrhythmic drugs, electrophysiological catheter ablation, or implantable cardioverter defibrillator(ICD) placement.
ARVC is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant pattern with variable penetrance and incomplete expression.
All first-degree family members should be screened for ARVC/D. Screening including ECG, echocardiogram, signal-averaged ECG, Holter monitor, cardiacMRI, and exercise stress test should begin during the teenage years.
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