Question
A 40-year-old male comes complaining that he is too weak to climb stairs or brush his hair. He denies any headaches or changes in vision. A muscle biopsy reveals perifascicular atrophy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
| A. |
Inclusion body myositis
|
| B. |
Dermatomyositis
|
| C. |
Polymyositis
|
| D. |
Necrotizing autoimmune myopathy
|
Show Answer
|
Correct Answer � B
Explanation
|
|
Ans. B. Dermatomyositis
Patient history of proximal muscle weakness and muscle biopsy finding of perifascicular atrophy makes Dermatomyositis the most likely diagnosis.
Muscle biopsy findings:
Polymyositis
Primary inflammation with the CD8/MHC-I complex and no vacuoles
Dermatomyositis
Perifascicular, perimysial or perivascular infiltrates and perifascicular atrophy.
Inclusion body myositis
Primary inflammation with CD8/MHC-I complex; vacuolated fibers with β-amyloid deposits
Like this:
Like Loading...
