Question
A 40-year-old male comes complaining that he is too weak to climb stairs or brush his hair. He denies any headaches or changes in vision. A muscle biopsy reveals perifascicular atrophy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
| A. |
Inclusion body myositis
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| B. |
Dermatomyositis
|
| C. |
Polymyositis
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| D. |
Necrotizing autoimmune myopathy
|
Show Answer
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Correct Answer � B
Explanation
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|
Ans. B. Dermatomyositis
Patient history of proximal muscle weakness and muscle biopsy finding of perifascicular atrophy makes Dermatomyositis the most likely diagnosis.
Muscle biopsy findings:
Polymyositis
Primary inflammation with the CD8/MHC-I complex and no vacuoles
Dermatomyositis
Perifascicular, perimysial or perivascular infiltrates and perifascicular atrophy.
Inclusion body myositis
Primary inflammation with CD8/MHC-I complex; vacuolated fibers with β-amyloid deposits
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