Question
A 40 year old male presented with the following lesions.Immunofluorescence shows IgG in intercellular space.What can be the most probable diagnosis?
A. Bullous Pemphigoid
B. Pemphigus Vulgaris
C. Dermatitis Herpetiformis
D. Epidermolysis Bullosa
Show Answer
|
Correct Answer » B
Explanation
|
|
Ans:B. Pemphigus Vulgaris.
PEMPHIGUS VULGARIS
- Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune, intraepithelial, blistering disease affecting the skin and mucous membranes. It is mediated by circulating autoantibodies directed against keratinocyte cell surfaces.
- Drugs reported most significantly in association with pemphigus vulgaris include penicillamine, captopril, cephalosporin, pyrazolones, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and other thiol-containing compounds.
Presentation:
- The diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris should be considered in any patient with persistent oral erosive lesions.
- Most patients with pemphigus vulgaris develop cutaneous lesions. The primary lesion of pemphigus vulgaris is a flaccid blister, which usually arises on healthy-appearing skin but may be found on erythematous skin.
Differentiating features of major immunobullous diseas
