MCQ – 88674

Question

A 42-year-old man with known valvular heart disease develops a fever for 1 week. He appears unwell; findings include a pan systolic murmur at the apex that radiates to the axilla and a soft S1 sound. He has petechiae on his conjunctival sac, linear hemorrhages under a few finger-nails, and painful, tender, and erythematous nodules on some of the distal fingertips. Which of the following is the most responsible mechanism for these physical findings?

A. direct bacterial invasion

B.

immune response

C.

vascular phenomena

D.

valvular damage

Show Answer

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