MCQ – 89106

Question

A 54-year-old African American male presents with progressive ataxia and left hemiparesis. He has a past medical history significant for focal segmental glomerulonephritis. Family history is notable for sarcoidosis in his mother as well as breast cancer in his sister. MRI brain shows a solitary homogeneously enhancing lesion within the right internal capsule that is hyperintense to gray matter on T2 with restricted diffusion on diffusion-weighted imaging. Brain biopsy reveals a diffuse large B cell lymphoma. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

A.

Corticosteroid administration

B.

Systemic staging

C.

Chemotherapy

D.

Whole-brain radiotherapy

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