Monoclonal Antibody

Monoclonal Antibody

Q. 1

In monoclonal antibody production, monoclonal cells are differentiated from?

 A Sensitized B cells
 B

Sensitized T cells

 C Myeloma cell lines
 D None of these
Q. 1

In monoclonal antibody production, monoclonal cells are differentiated from?

 A Sensitized B cells
 B

Sensitized T cells

 C Myeloma cell lines
 D None of these
Ans. C

Explanation:

Myeloma cell lines

REF: Applications and engineering of monoclonal antibodies by David J. King page 17, A practical guide to monoclonal antibodies by J. Eryl Liddell, Anthony Cryer Page 69

“A myeloma cell is classically defined as a neoplastic plasma cell in myelomatosis producing a structurally and electrophoretically homogeneous (monoclonal) paraprotein”

Fusion of the myeloma cells and the harvested B cells is usually accomplished using polyethylene glycol (PEG) as an agent to induce membrane fusion (cheep, reliable and most commonly used method). Alternatively electrofusion or Sendai virus can be used. After fusion a mixture of spleen cells myeloma cells and hybridoma cells are

present and next step is selection of hybridoma cells over other cells.

POST FUSION SELECTION:

Myeloma cells are deficient in HGPRT and are not able to use salvage pathway for RNA synthesis. HAT (Hypoxanthine, Aminopterin, Thymidine) medium is used to achieve selection. Aminopterin is an inhibitor of DNA and RNA synthesis and thus blocks myeloma cells. Hybridoma cells however have HGPRT and thus can add hypoxanthine and thymidine to produce RNA and thus can survive.

Cell type

DNA synthesis

Survival in HAT medium

 

Salvage pathway

De Novo pathway

 

Myeloma

HGPRT –

Aminopterin sensitive

Die (no DNA synthesis)

Spleen

HGPRT +

Aminopterin sensitive

Die (finite survival in vitro)

Myeloma spleen hybrid

HGPRT +

Aminopterin sensitive

Live

Myeloma myeloma hybrid

HGPRT –

Aminopterin sensitive

Die (no DNA synthesis)

Spleen spleen hybrid

HGPRT +

Aminopterin sensitive

Die (finite survival in vitro)

Alternatively myeloma cells can be selected to be deficient in enzyme thymidine kinase (TK) by growth in bromodeoxyuridine.


Q. 2

Bevacizumab is?

 A Monoclonal antibody against VEGF
 B Anti-IL-2 monoclonal antibody
 C Monoclonal antibody against FGFR
 D Monoclonal antibody against EGFR
Q. 2

Bevacizumab is?

 A Monoclonal antibody against VEGF
 B Anti-IL-2 monoclonal antibody
 C Monoclonal antibody against FGFR
 D Monoclonal antibody against EGFR
Ans. A

Explanation:

Monoclonal antibody against VEGF REF: Goodman Gillman’s 11′h ed p. 915 

See APPENDIX-34 for “FDA approved monoclonal antibodies”

BEVACIZUMAB: Bevacizumab (AVASTIN) targets the vascular-endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and inhibits its interaction with the VEGFR1 and VEGFR2 receptors. VEGF is an angiogenic growth factor that regulates vascular proliferation and permeability and inhibits apoptosis of new blood vessels. Use: Bevacizumab is FDA approved for metastatic colorectal cancer in combination with 5-FU. Side effects: Hypertension, pulmonary hemorrhage, gastrointestinal perforation, proteinuria, congestive heart failure


Q. 3 A 56 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statement regarding this drug is true ?
 A

It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse containing no human component

 B

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen

 C

Injection of herceptin increases antibody response

 D

The protein HER 2/Neu is expressed in increased amount by breast cancer cells

Q. 3 A 56 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statement regarding this drug is true ?
 A

It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse containing no human component

 B

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen

 C

Injection of herceptin increases antibody response

 D

The protein HER 2/Neu is expressed in increased amount by breast cancer cells

Ans. B

Explanation:

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting HER-2 antigen; ‘cl’ i.e., The protein
HER2/NEU is expressed in increased amount by breast cancer cells [Ref: Harrison 171h/e p. 502, 567]

  • Cancer cells express certain antigen on their surface. These antigens can be made the target of chemotherapies.
  • Specific antibodies have been developed against these cell surface receptors.
  • Because the antibodies were produced from one cell that was grown into a clone of identical cells it is called monoclonal antibody.
  • These antibodies were originally developed as mice antibody but because human have immune reactions to mouse proteins, these antibodies are usually chimerized or humanized when used as therapeutic reagents. i.e., the antibodies have both human and mouse component.

These antibodies kill the cells by following mechanism 😕

– Antibody dependent cellular toxicity

– Complement dependent cytotoxicity

– Diret induction of apoptosis

However, the clinically relevant mechanism still remains uncertain.

Herceptin (Trastuzumab)

  • Herceptin is a humanized antibody and is used in breast cancers which are HER2 positive.

(Major portion of it is composed of human component and a small part is composed of mouse protein).

  • HER2 stands for –4 human epidermal growth factor receptor.
  • HER2 gene produces HER2 protein also called HER2 receptor.
  • The HER2 protein is found on the surface of some normal cells in the body. In normal cells HER2 protein help send growth signals from outside the cell to the inside of the cell.

These signals tell the cell to grow and divide.

  • In HER2 (+ve) breast cancer the cancer cells have abnormally high number of HER2 genes per cell when this happens too much HER2 protein appears on the surface of these cancer cells.
  • This is called HER2 protein over expression. Too much HER2 protein is thought to cause cancer cells to grow and divide uncontrollably.

Herceptin acts in two ways

a) Herceptin attaches to HER2+ cancer cells and stimulates the bodys immune system to target the HER2+ cancer cells

b) Herceptin attaches itself to the HER2 receptors on the surface and blocks them from receiving the signals. Herceptin also acts by antibody dependent cell

c) mediated cytotoxicity. We are not sure if it is increased antibody response

Uses of Herceptin (trastuzumab)

  • Currently transtuzumab is approved for HER2/ neu overexpressing metastatic breast cancer in combination with paclitaxel as initial treatment or as monotherapy following chemotherapy.

Q. 4 Monoclonal antibody against VEGF is:
 A Epratuzumab
 B Toclizumab
 C Bevacuzimab
 D Cetuximab
Q. 4 Monoclonal antibody against VEGF is:
 A Epratuzumab
 B Toclizumab
 C Bevacuzimab
 D Cetuximab
Ans. C

Explanation:

Bevacuzimab


Q. 5

A 60 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statement regarding this drug is TRUE?

 A

It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse containing no human component

 B

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen

 C

Injection of herceptin increases antibody response

 D

The protein HER2/Neu is expressed in increased amount by breast cancer cells

Q. 5

A 60 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statement regarding this drug is TRUE?

 A

It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse containing no human component

 B

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen

 C

Injection of herceptin increases antibody response

 D

The protein HER2/Neu is expressed in increased amount by breast cancer cells

Ans. B

Explanation:

Trastuzumab (HERCEPTIN) is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to the external domain of HER2/neu (ErbB2).

Trastuzumab was the first monoclonal antibody to be approved for the treatment of a solid tumor.

Thirty percent of breast cancers overexpress this receptor due to gene amplification on chromosome 17.

Also Know:
Trastuzumab exerts its antitumor effects through several putative mechanisms of action: inhibition of homo- or heterodimerization of receptor, thereby preventing receptor kinase activation and downstream signaling; initiation of Fc-receptor-mediated antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity; and blockade of the angiogenic effects of HER2 signaling.
Ref: Chabner B.A., Barnes J., Neal J., Olson E., Mujagic H., Sequist L., Wilson W., Longo D.L., Mitsiades C., Richardson P. (2011). Chapter 62. Targeted Therapies: Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors, Monoclonal Antibodies, and Cytokines. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.

Q. 6

The monoclonal antibody useful in the treatment of PNH is:

 A

Rituximab

 B

Eculizumab

 C

Infliximab

 D

Adalimumab

Q. 6

The monoclonal antibody useful in the treatment of PNH is:

 A

Rituximab

 B

Eculizumab

 C

Infliximab

 D

Adalimumab

Ans. B

Explanation:

By blocking the complement cascade downstream of C5, eculizumab abolishes complement-dependent intravascular hemolysis in all PNH patients, and significantly improves their quality of life.


Reference:
Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 884

Q. 7

Eculizumab an anti-C5 monoclonal antibody is used in the treatment of:

 A

NHL

 B

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

 C

Multiple myeloma

 D

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Q. 7

Eculizumab an anti-C5 monoclonal antibody is used in the treatment of:

 A

NHL

 B

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

 C

Multiple myeloma

 D

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Ans. D

Explanation:

A major advance in the management of PNH has been the development of a humanized monoclonal antibody, eculizumab, directed against the complement component C5.

By blocking the complement cascade downstream of C5, eculizumab abrogates complement-dependent intravascular hemolysis in all PNH patients.


Reference:
Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 884-86

 


Q. 8

A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flow cytometery showed CD 19 +, CD5 +, CD23 -, monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positively comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

 A

Mantle cell lymphoma

 B

Follicular lymphoma

 C

Hairy cell leukemia

 D

Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes

Q. 8

A 63-year old man presented with massive splenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and a total leucocyte count of 17000 per mm3. The flow cytometery showed CD 19 +, CD5 +, CD23 -, monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positively comprising 80% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

 A

Mantle cell lymphoma

 B

Follicular lymphoma

 C

Hairy cell leukemia

 D

Splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes

Ans. A

Explanation:

Patient in the question is showing features of mantle cell lymphoma.

Mantle cell lymphoma is a subtype of non Hodgkins lymphoma.

Patients often presents with lymphadenopathy at several sites along with fever, night sweats or weight loss. On examination hepatomegaly and spleenomegaly is evident.

Investigations: Translocation of chromosome t(11:14) result in over expression of cyclin D1. Biopsy of lymph node mostly shows a diffuse enlargement of lymph node, rarely a mantle zone pattern. The flow cytometery shows CD 19 +, CD5 +, CD23 -ve monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity.

 
Ref: Williams Hematology, 8th Edition, Chapter 95, Pages 101 – 2

Q. 9

True about Monoclonal antibody:

 A

Produced by hybridoma technology

 B

Used for blood grouping

 C

Requires in small quantity

 D

All

Q. 9

True about Monoclonal antibody:

 A

Produced by hybridoma technology

 B

Used for blood grouping

 C

Requires in small quantity

 D

All

Ans. D

Explanation:

A i.e. Produced by hybridoma technology;  B i.e. Used for blood grouping; C i.e Requires in small quantity


Q. 10

Bevacizumab is?

 A

Monoclonal antibody against VEGF

 B

Chloroquine

 C

Monoclonal antibody against FGFR

 D

Halofantarine

Q. 10

Bevacizumab is?

 A

Monoclonal antibody against VEGF

 B

Chloroquine

 C

Monoclonal antibody against FGFR

 D

Halofantarine

Ans. A

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Monoclonal antibody against VEGF

Bevacizumab is monoclonal anti-VGEF antibody. It is used in colon, lung and breast cancers.


Q. 11

Cetuximab and rituximab are ?

 A

Humanized monoclonal antibodies

 B

Murine monoclonal antibodies

 C

Chimeric monoclonal antibodies

 D

Antinuclear antibodies

Q. 11

Cetuximab and rituximab are ?

 A

Humanized monoclonal antibodies

 B

Murine monoclonal antibodies

 C

Chimeric monoclonal antibodies

 D

Antinuclear antibodies

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., Chimeric monoclonal antibodies


Q. 12

A 56 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statement regarding this drug is true ?

 A

It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse containing no human component

 B

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen

 C

It is a polyclonal antibody

 D

It is a monoclonal antibody containing only human component

Q. 12

A 56 year old female presented with breast carcinoma and she was prescribed herceptin (trastuzumab). Which of the following statement regarding this drug is true ?

 A

It is an antibody produced entirely from mouse containing no human component

 B

It is a monoclonal antibody produced by injecting her-2 antigen

 C

It is a polyclonal antibody

 D

It is a monoclonal antibody containing only human component

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘b’ i.e., It is monoclonal antibody produced by injecting HER-2 antigen

o Herceptin is a humanized antibody and is used in breast cancers which are HER2 positive.


Q. 13

Cardiomyopathy is caused by which monoclonal antibody?

 A

Trastuzumab

 B

Infliximab

 C

Eternacept

 D

Adalimumab

Q. 13

Cardiomyopathy is caused by which monoclonal antibody?

 A

Trastuzumab

 B

Infliximab

 C

Eternacept

 D

Adalimumab

Ans. A

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘a’ i.e., Trastuzumab

o Trastuzumab, a HER2/neu receptor blocker and is used in breast carcinoma causes dilated cardiomyopathy.


Q. 14

DENOSUMAB a monoclonal antibody against RANKL receptor is used in the treatment of ‑

 A

Rheumtoid arthritis

 B

Osteoporosis

 C

Osteoarthritis

 D

SLE

Q. 14

DENOSUMAB a monoclonal antibody against RANKL receptor is used in the treatment of ‑

 A

Rheumtoid arthritis

 B

Osteoporosis

 C

Osteoarthritis

 D

SLE

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘b i.e., Osteoporosis

Donesumab

o Osteoclast is a cell responsible for bone resorption.

o Osteoclasts express RANK receptors on its surface (RANK —> receptor activator for nuclear factor).

o When RANK receptor combine with their ligands (RANKL) osteoclastogenesis is initiated and bone resorption occurs.

o Donesumab is a monoclonal antibody against RANK ligand. o It prevents the activation of the osteoclasts by these ligand.

Note :

o Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by decrease in the bone mass.

o In osteoporosis there is increase in the osteoclast activity and there is increased expression of RANK and RANKL.


Q. 15

What is true about HER2/neu overexpression in Ca breast:

 A

Good prognosis

 B

Responds well to taxanes

 C

Responds well to monoclonal antibodies

 D

Seen only in breast cancer

Q. 15

What is true about HER2/neu overexpression in Ca breast:

 A

Good prognosis

 B

Responds well to taxanes

 C

Responds well to monoclonal antibodies

 D

Seen only in breast cancer

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans is ‘c’ i.e. Responds well to monoclonal antibodies 

The HER2 receptor (previously called HER2/neu, or ERBB-2 receptor) belongs to the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) family of receptors, which are critical in the activation of subcellular signal transduction pathways controlling epithelial cell growth and differentiation and possibly angiogenesis.

Amplification of HER2 or overexpression of its protein product is observed in 18 to 20 percent of human breast cancers.

HER2 overexpression is also noted in other tumors such as esophagogastric tumors, lung, ovary & head and neck squamous cell ca. (In all of these sites, HER2 overexpression has been identified as a negative prognostic factor.)

Following points are to be noted about HER2 overexpression in breast Ca:

Prognostic value of HER2 — HER2 overexpression is a poor prognostic marker. HER2 overexpression is associated with high rates of disease recurrence and death in the absence of adjuvant systemic therapy.

Predictive value of HER2 — HER2 status predicts response to specific therapies:

  • Patients with high levels of HER2 expression benefit from treatment with agents that target HER2, such as trastuzumab (a monoclonal antibody) and lapatinib.
  • HER2 status appears to predict resistance or sensitivity to different types of chemotherapeutic agents, including anthracyclines and taxanes.

Women whose tumors overexpress HER2 appear to derive greater benefit from anthracycline-based adjuvant therapy than from adjuvant therapy that is alkylating agent-based, such as CMF (cycl ophosphami de, methotrexate, fluorouracil).

Relationship between HER2 overexpression and taxanes is still under study with various studies giving conflicting reports.

HER-2 positivity is associated with resistance to endocrine therapies.


Q. 16

A patient presents with evidence of lytic lesion in the bone. Histology from the bone lesion reveals monoclonal plasma cells. Bone marrow biopsy from the from the sternum shows <10 percent Plasma cells. Skeletal Survey is otherwise unremarkable. A small positive M spike is reported on electrophoresis. The diagnosis is:

 A

Multiple Myeloma

 B

Plasmacytoma

 C

Smoldering Myeloma

 D

Lymphoma

Q. 16

A patient presents with evidence of lytic lesion in the bone. Histology from the bone lesion reveals monoclonal plasma cells. Bone marrow biopsy from the from the sternum shows <10 percent Plasma cells. Skeletal Survey is otherwise unremarkable. A small positive M spike is reported on electrophoresis. The diagnosis is:

 A

Multiple Myeloma

 B

Plasmacytoma

 C

Smoldering Myeloma

 D

Lymphoma

Ans. B

Explanation:

Answer is B (Plasmacytoma)

Presence of a solitary lytic lesion of the bone with monoclonal plasma cells suggests a diagnosis of Solitary Plasmacytoma of Bone. A small M spike may be identified in some patients but Bone Marrow biopsy taken some distance away from the primary site is typically not involved typically showing < 10 percent plasma cells

Solitary Bone Plasmacytoma

The diagnosis of SBP requires histologic evidence of a monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate in a single bone lesion, absence of other bone lesion on skeletal survey, and lack of marrow plasmacytosis elsewhere. Furthermore, there should be no evidence of anemia, hypercalcemia, or renal dysfunction that could be attributed to the plasma cell proliferative disorder spike may be identified in some patients hut Bone Marrow biopsy taken some distance away from the primary site is not involved typically showing < 10 percent plasma cells.

Diagnostic criteria for Solitary Plasmacytoma of bone and Extramedullary Plasmacytoma

  • Solitary Osseous lesion or Extramedullary lesion due to clonal plasma cell proliferation
  • Normal marrow with no evidence of clonal plasma cells or aneuploidy by flow-cytometry.
  • Normal skeletal survey with proximal humeri and femora and a
  • Normal magnetic resonance image of the axial skeleton (for Solitary Plasmacytoma of Bone); or a
  • Normal regional computed tomographic scan (for Extramedullary Plasmacytoma).
  • Absent or low serum or urinary concentration of monoclonal protein.
  • No anemia, hypercalcemia, or renal insufficiency attributable A myeloma.

Q. 17

Type I Cryoglobulinemia is associated with all of the following, except:

 A

Hyperviscosity

 B

Monoclonal 1gM paraprotein

 C

Normal complement levels

 D

Strongly Positive Rheumatoid factor

Q. 17

Type I Cryoglobulinemia is associated with all of the following, except:

 A

Hyperviscosity

 B

Monoclonal 1gM paraprotein

 C

Normal complement levels

 D

Strongly Positive Rheumatoid factor

Ans. D

Explanation:

Answer is D (Strongly Positive Rheumatoid factor):

Type I Cryoglobulinemia (simple cryoglobulinemia) is typically associated with Monoclonal IgM paraprotenemia producing a Hyperviscosity type syndrome. Type I Cryoglobulins rarely have Rheumatoid Factor Activity and do not activate complement in vitro (hence complement levels are usually normal).

`Monoclonal Cryoglobulins (Type I) rarely exhibit Rheumatoid Factor activity and do not interfere with complement mediated function in vitro’

‘Cryoglobulins and Cryoglobulinemia’ from Clinical Reviews in Allergy and Immunology: Vol 16, Number 3 (1998) page 249-264

`Type I Cryoglobulins do not activate the complement cascade and are therefore associated with normal complement levels’

Mixed Cryoglobulinemias (Type II/Type III) are associated with Strongly Positive Rheumatoid Factors and  Reduced Complement levels.

Hypocomplementemia occurs in 90% of patients with mixed cryoglobulinemias.

Rheumatoid factor is positive in 80-100% ofpatients with mixed cryoglobulinemia

 Cryoglobulinemia

  • Cryoglobulins are immunoglobulins that precipitate as serum is cooled below core body temperature (below 37° C) and re-dissolve on re-warming.
  • Cryoglobulinemia is characterized by the presence of cryoglobulins in the serum.
  • Cryoglobulinemia is most commonly classified into three types in accordance with the Brouet Classification based on the components of the cryoprecipitate.
  • Type I (Simple Cryoglobulinemia) and Type II, Type III (Mixed cryoglobulinemia)

 

Feature                                    Type I                                              Type II                                           Type III

(Simple Cryoglobulinemia)                 (Mixed Cryoglobulinemia)              (Mixed Cryoglobulinemia)      

 

Cryoglobulin

Single Monoclonal

Mixed Monoclonal’

Mixed Polyclonal

 

Molecular composition

Monoclonal IgM or

Monoclonal IgG

 

Monoclonal IgM* (>IgG*)

Polyclonal IgG

 

Polyclonal IgM and

Polyclonal IgG

 

Composed entirely of Monoclonal

Immunoglobulins, usually

IgM or IgG

Composed of Monoclonal

Immunoglobulins usually

IgM along with Polyclonal

Composed of polyclonal

immunoglobulin of more

than once isotype such as

polyclonal IgM and

polyclonal IgG

 

Immunoglobulin usually

IgG

 

 

 

 

 

 

Rheumatoid Factor

Activity

Rheumatoid factor activity is absent (rarely present)

Rheumatoid Factor activity is strongly positive

 

Rheumatoid factor activity is positive

 

Monoclonal IgM in Type I

Syndrome does not have

Rheumatoid Factor Activity

Monoclonal IgM in Type II

Syndrome has Rheumatoid

Factor activity against IgG

‘ Polyclonal IgM has Rheumatoid factor activity

 

 

 

 

 

 

Complement Activation

in Vitro

Do not activate the complement cascade

 

Activate the complement cascade

 

Activate the complement cascade

 

Complement levels normal

Complement levels reduced

Complement levels reduced.

 

 

 

 

 

Predominant clinical manifestation

Primarily related to Hyperviscosity and consequent thrombosis

 

Primarily related to vasculitis due to immune complex formation and activation of complement

 

•    Acrocyanosis

•    Retinal Hemorrhages

•    Raynaud’s phenomenon

with digital ulceration

•    Livido reticularis

•   Arterial reticularis

•   Arterial Thrombosis

•    Cutaneous vasculitis

•    Renal Glomerulonephritis

•    Neuropathy (Vasculitis)

•   Abdominal pain (mesenteric vasculitis)

•   Arthralgia & myalgia

 

Mitzer’s Triad: Purpura + Arthralgia + Weakness

 

 

 

 

Associations

Lymphoproliferative Diseases

•    Chronic hepatitis C

•    Autoimmune disease

•    Sjogren’s syndrome

•    CLL

•    NHL

Autoimmune Diseases

 

•  Multiple Myeloma

•  `Waldenstroms

Macroglobulinemia’

•  Monoclonal Gammopathy

•   Systemic Lupus

Erythematous

•   Rheumatoid Arthritis

•   Inflammatory Bowel Disease

•   Biliary Cirrhosis

Chronic Infections

 

•   Viral (EBV, CMV, HIV,

Hepatitis E)

•   Bacterial (Leprosy,

Spirochetal, SBE)

•   Fungal

•   Parasitic

 

 


Q. 18

Bence Jone’s Protein is:

March 2005

 A

Monoclonal heavy chains

 B

Monoclonal light chains

 C

Both of above

 D

None of the above

Q. 18

Bence Jone’s Protein is:

March 2005

 A

Monoclonal heavy chains

 B

Monoclonal light chains

 C

Both of above

 D

None of the above

Ans. B

Explanation:

Ans. B: Monoclonal light chains

A Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein found in the blood or urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa. The proteins are immunoglobulin light chains (paraproteins) and are produced by neoplastic plasma cells. They can be kappa (most of the time) or lambda.

The light chains can be immunoglobulin fragments or single homogeneous immunoglobulins.

They are found in urine due to the kidneys’ decreased filtration capabilities due to renal failure, often induced by hypercalcemia from the calcium released as the bones are destroyed.

The light chains can be detected by heating or electrophoresis of concentrated urine. Light chains precipitate when heated to 50 – 60 degrees C and redisolve at 90 -100 degrees C.

There are various rarer conditions that can produce Bence Jones proteins, such as Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia.


Q. 19

Which of the following anti-cancer drug comes under monoclonal antibodies:    

March 2013

 A

Di-ethyl-stilbestrol

 B

Tamoxifen

 C

Ritumixab

 D

Bortezomib

Q. 19

Which of the following anti-cancer drug comes under monoclonal antibodies:    

March 2013

 A

Di-ethyl-stilbestrol

 B

Tamoxifen

 C

Ritumixab

 D

Bortezomib

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. C i.e. Ritumixab

Rituximab

  • It is a chimeric monoclonal antibody against the protein CD20, which is primarily found on the surface of B cells.
  • Rituximab destroys B cells, and is therefore used to treat diseases which are characterized by excessive numbers of B cells, overactive B cells, or dysfunctional B cells.
  • This includes many lymphomas, leukemias, transplant rejection, and autoimmune disorders.

Q. 20

All of the following are true about rituximab except?

 A

Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD-20 B cell antigen

 B

Most common side effect is infusion reaction

 C

First FDA drug approved for resistant lymphomas

 D

Dose independent pharmacokinetics

Q. 20

All of the following are true about rituximab except?

 A

Chimeric monoclonal antibody against CD-20 B cell antigen

 B

Most common side effect is infusion reaction

 C

First FDA drug approved for resistant lymphomas

 D

Dose independent pharmacokinetics

Ans. D

Explanation:

Ans. d. Dose independent pharmacokinetics


Q. 21

Ranibizomab is monoclonal antibody against ‑

 A

IL-6

 B

CD-20

 C

VEGF

 D

EGFR

Q. 21

Ranibizomab is monoclonal antibody against ‑

 A

IL-6

 B

CD-20

 C

VEGF

 D

EGFR

Ans. C

Explanation:

Ans. is ‘c’ i.e., VEGF



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